항공사 기출문제 정리 13

1. When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

 

a. When priority has been given

b. Anytime an emergency occurs

c. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace

 

2. A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?

 

a. 1,000 feet AGL

b. 1,500 feet AGL

c. 5,000 feet AGL

 

3. During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356˚ with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may

 

a. be used if 4˚ is entered on a correction card and subtracted from all VOR courses

b. be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits

c. not be used during IFR flights, since TO/FROM should read TO

 

4. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to

 

a. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums

b. entering controlled airspace

c. entering IFR weather conditions

 

5. When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?

 

a. 1 SM

b. 1/2 SM

c. 300 feet and 1/2 SM

 

6. What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?

 

a. Descend to minimum vector altitude

b. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment

c. Descend to initial approach fix altitude

 

7. Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?

 

a. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA

b. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen

c. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable

 

8. The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?

 

a. 1/2 SM

b. 3/4 SM

c. 1/4 SM

 

9. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?

 

a. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book

b. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA

c. The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport

 

10. Which facility may be substituded for the middle marker during a Category 1 ILS approach?

 

a. VOR/DME FIX

b. Surveillance radar

c. Compass locator

 

11. Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person

 

a. shall correctly annotate the flight plan

b. must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan

c. should file for odd altitudes only

 

12. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

 

a. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight

b. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top

c. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance

 

13. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?

 

a. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

b. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus of minus 3 minutes

c. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later

 

14. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?

 

a. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

b. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

c. At the EFC time as amended by ATC

 

15. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot in command follow?

 

a. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly

b. Advice ATC immediately

c. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency

 

16. When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight?

 

a. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required

b. In terminal radar service areas

c. Above 12,500 feet MSL

 

17. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?

 

a. 60 days

b. 90 days

c. 30 days

 

18. A person must report RVSM altitude keeping

 

a. deviations of 300 feet or more from an assigned altitude

b. deviations of 245 feet or more from an assigned altitude

c. deviations of 120 feet or more from an assigned altitude

 

19. Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?

 

a. Ruddervator

b. Upper rudder

c. Leading edge flaps

 

20. What is the purpose of a control tab?

 

a. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion

b. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control

c. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position due to aerodynamic forces

 

21. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?

 

a. Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight

b. Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces

c. Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures

 

22. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?

 

a. Same direction

b. Opposite direction

c. Remains fixed for all positions

 

23. What is the purpose of a servo tab?

 

a. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion

b. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control

c. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position due to aerodynamic forces

 

24. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?

 

a. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion

b. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control

c. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position due to aerodynamic forces

 

25. What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?

 

a. Prevent flow separation

b. Decrease rate of sink

c. Increase profile drag

 

26. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?

 

a. Increase lift at relative slow speeds

b. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack

c. Direct air from the low-pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing

 

27. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?

 

a. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing

b. Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag

c. Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn

 

28. Flaps have more effect on

 

a. thick wings

b. thin wings

c. symmetrical wings

 

29. Split flaps as opposed to plain flaps

 

a. Produce more lift with less drag

b. produce only slightly more lift, but much more drag

c. enhance takeoff performance in hot temperatures and high altitudes

 

30. Fowler flaps as compared to split flaps

 

a. generate more nose down pitching moment

b. develop much more drag

c. cause very little change in the airplane structure